Three features of a microscope

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The Functions & Parts of a Microscope.

Eyepiece Lens: the lens at the top that you look through, usually 10x or 15x power.

Tube: Connects the eyepiece to the objective lenses.

Arm: Supports the tube and connects it to the base.

Base: The bottom of the microscope, used for support.


Related Questions

pregnancy kits test for the presence of what hormone?

Answers

human chorionic gonadotropin

What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation?.

Answers

Answer:

Chylomicrons

Explanation:

Chylomicrons is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation.

Q.162.A 10 years old girl presented with fever and bruises for last 2 weeks. On examination she is pale; however there is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Her Hb is 6g/dl, TLC is 2700 and platelets are 90000. The most appropriate investigation to clinch the diagnosis is:
a)Bone marrow aspiration
b)Retics count
c)Bleeding time
d)PT and APTT
e)Factor VIII assay

Answers

Answer:

In a bone marrow aspiration, a health care provider uses a thin needle to remove a small amount of liquid bone marrow, usually from a spot in the back of your hipbone (pelvis).

A normal PT with an abnormal aPTT means that the defect lies within the intrinsic pathway, and a deficiency of factor VIII, IX, X, or XIII is suggested. A normal aPTT with an abnormal PT means that the defect lies within the extrinsic pathway and suggests a possible factor VII deficiency

Bleeding time is a medical test done on someone to assess their platelets function. It involves making a patient bleed, then timing how long it takes for them to stop bleeding using a stopwatch or other suitable devices.

Most people in the US need to _____ their sodium intake and _____ their potassium intake to meet recommendations for a healthy diet.

Answers

Answer:

decrease, increase

Explanation:

Most people in the US need to decrease their sodium intake and increase their potassium intake to meet recommendations for a healthy diet.

A 73-year-old man presents with confusion; cool, pale, clammy skin; absent radial pulses; and a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg. The patient's wife tells you that he has had abdominal pain for a week and began vomiting a coffee-ground substance yesterday. His past medical history includes hypertension and gastric ulcer disease. Your MOST immediate concern should be that:

Answers

Answer:

He is in shock and requires prompt transport

Explanation:

I am taking pre-med classes :)

muscles when moving produce body____

Answers

Answer:

heat

Explanation:

id.k if this is right

hope this helps

have a good day

What is the priority symptom to assess for in the client who is taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day

Answers

Risperidone is taken to treat conditions like schizophrenia, and irritability associated with autistic disorder. Orthostatic hypertension can be the priority symptom to assess for this client taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day.

What is Orthostatic hypertension?

Orthostatic hypertension is a medical condition which includes sudden increase in blood pressure when the person stands up.

It can be diagnosed by a rise in systolic BP of 20 mmHg or more when standing.

In case of client who is taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day, nurse should monitor client blood pressure both while sitting and standing.

Thus, it can be concluded that the  priority symptom to assess for in the client who is taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day is orthostatic hypertension.

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The term for a condition of wasting of the bone marrow and its subsequent replacement with cancer cells is

Answers

Answer:

Here

Explanation:

Aplastic anemia?

Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately _____calories are required from the mother each day.

Answers

Answer:

500

Explanation:

Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately 500 calories are required from the mother each day.

A busy student, with very few financial resources, has body aches, a fever, cough and nasal congestions and difficulty breathing through their nose. The direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to

Answers

According to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.

What is a common cold?

It is a mild condition of an infectious nature and viral origin that is also known as a catarrh and that affects the upper respiratory structure.

Its symptoms include sore throat, sneezing, nasal congestions, headache, cough, malaise, and low-grade fever.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.

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which method of communication between two or more members of a health care team is a formal means of communication

Answers

The method of communication between two or more members of a health care team that us a formal means of communication is Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.

What is communication?

Communication is the process in which information is sent from the sender to the receiver and each understanding the purpose of the information.

Therefore, The method of communication between two or more members of a health care team that us a formal means of communication is Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.

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which type of disease produces symptoms for which no physiological or anatomical cause can be identified?

Answers

Answer:

This would be in the "genetic disorder" category.

Explanation:

The doctor will find no medical cause or scientific explanation.  In the area of medicine, this is known also as MUS - medically unexplained symptom.

Remember that this does not mean that the person is faking or that is all in their head because this is real to them.  It can affect their ability to function and live a regular joe life.

Carlos would like to follow recommendations that would reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Based on this information, Carlos should ______.

Answers

Answer:

become more physically active

Explanation:

Carlos would like to follow recommendations that would reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Based on this information, Carlos should become more physically active

An estimated _____ to _____ percent of children are allergic to a specific food, almost always a common, healthy one.

Answers

An estimated 3 to 8 percent of children are allergic to a specific food, almost always a common, healthy one.

What is food allergy?

Food allergy is defined as the situation whereby an individual's immune system reacts in an unpleasant manner after the consumption of a certain type of food.

These reaction may include the following:

itching in the mouth,

swelling of the face, and

difficulty swallowing.

This condition is common among children.

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Is there a Right and Left of the Superior Sagittarius Sinus or does the right transverse sinus just drain into the Superior Sagittal Sinus?

Answers

Answer: The superior sagittal sinus drains into the transverse sinus. The transverse sinuses also receive venous drainage from small veins from both the middle ear and the mastoid cells. The transverse sinus becomes the sigmoid sinus before draining into the internal jugular vein.

Which dysrhythmia has premature P waves with a different configuration than other P waves in the cardiac cycle

Answers

The dysrhythmia that has premature P waves with a different configuration than other P waves in the cardiac cycle is Premature atrial complex.

What is cardiac cycle?

Cardiac cycle is defined as the electrical and mechanical events that leads to a heart beat of the heart.

The cardiac cycle has three stages:

Atrial and Ventricular diastole: This is the relaxation of the atrium and ventricles.

Atrial systole: This is the contraction of the atrium.

Ventricular systole: This is the contraction of the ventricle.

Premature atrial complex is a type of premature heartbeat that is developed from the atria as a result of premature P waves with a different configuration than other P waves in the cardiac cycle.

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For an individual with abnormally high or low heart rates, which cardiovascular endurance test might provide the most accurate results

Answers

The cardiovascular endurance test that might provide the most accurate result is the Balke-Ware treadmill test.

What is Balke-Ware treadmill test?

Balke-Ware treadmill test is a test that is used to determine the peak volume of O2 in cardiac patients, though it can also be used to estimate cardiovascular fitness in athletes.

This cardiovascular endurance test involves walking on a treadmill to exhaustion, at a constant walking speed while gradient/slope is increased every one or two minutes.

Therefore, the cardiovascular endurance test that might provide the most accurate result is the Balke-Ware treadmill test.

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Drugs that reduce depression without increasing mania, or reduce mania without increasing depression, are called

Answers

Answer:

Mood stabilizers.

Explanation:

Drugs that reduce depression without increasing mania, or reduce mania without increasing depression, are called mood stabilizers.

Which disorder is most likely to cause substernal chest pain at rest that occurs at the same time each day

Answers

Answer:

Variant angina also called Prinzmetal's, or Vasospastic. It is a syndrome typically consisting of angina (cardiac chest pain) in contrast to stable angina which is mainly triggered by exertion or intense exercise, commonly happens in people at rest or even asleep and is caused by vasospasm, a narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by contraction of the heart's smooth muscle tissue in the vessel walls. In comparison, stable angina is due to the permanent occlusion of these vessels by atherosclerosis (i.e. buildup of fatty plaque and hardening of the arteries).

Explanation:

I had to learn about this because someone in my family had it.

You need to make 350g of 15% zinc oxide. How much zinc oxide is required?

Answers

Answer:

52.5 gm

Explanation:

350 g * 15 % =   350 * .15 = 52.5 gm

What is 'aetiology'? Select one: O a. Judgment of the likely or expected development of a disease O b. A judgment about what a particular illness or problem is c. The study of the causes of a disease O d. None of the above-mentioned ​

Answers

Answer:

The cause or the origin of the disease.

Explanation:

c

You are mentoring a student in the intensive care unit (ICU) while caring for a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which action by the student requires you to intervene most rapidly

Answers

The action by the student that requires you to intervene most rapidly is entering the room without putting on a mask & gown.

What is intensive care unit (ICU) ?

The Intensive Care Unit (ICU) is a unit in the hospital that specialises in the care of patients that are in critical conditions such as

patients that are from surgery who needs close monitoring.

Patients on life support and

terminal illness patients.

Meningococcal meningitis is a type of infection that affects the meningitis leading to life threatening situations.

This infection is communicable therefore that student should be on personal protection wares to avoid being infected.

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Men have a higher incidence of __________ chronic conditions, whereas women have a higher incidence of __________ chronic conditions.

Answers

Answer:

Fatal; nonfatal

Explanation:

Men have a higher incidence of Fatal chronic conditions, whereas women have a higher incidence of nonfatal chronic conditions.

Manual healing techniques are based on the idea that misalignment or dysfunction in one part of the body can cause pain or dysfunction in another part. true false

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

It is true that Manual healing techniques are based on the idea that misalignment or dysfunction in one part of the body can cause pain or dysfunction in another part.

A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled for a barium enema. What should the plan of care include today to prepare for the test tomorrow

Answers

Answer:

Encourage plenty of fluids.

Explanation:

The nurse should encourage plenty of fluids because adequate fluid intake is necessary to avoid dehydration that may be caused by the bowel preparation and to prevent fecal impaction after the procedure. The client may be placed on a low-residue diet 1 to 2 days before the procedure to reduce the contents in the GI tract. Fiber intake is limited in a low-residue diet. Because dairy products leave a residue, they aren't allowed the evening before the test. Clear liquids only are allowed the evening before the test.

The preferred term to use for weight recommendations and for establishing what body weight should be:

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Healthy weight

Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority assessment

Answers

Answer:

Blood pressure

Explanation:

Methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. Methylergonovine causes continuous uterine contractions and may elevate the blood pressure. A priority assessment before the administration of the medication is to check the blood pressure. The obstetrician needs to be notified if hypertension is present.  blood pressure is related specifically to the administration of this medication.

How many compressions per cycle should be provided to an adult, child or infant when doing cpr?.

Answers

Answer:

15 compressions to 2 breaths.

Explanation:

Two minutes usually allow for five cycles of 30 chest compressions and two breaths. A two-minute CPR cycle is usually tiring.

What term describes the health hazard that causes disruption to an embryo or fetus.

Answers

Teratogens- Agents that can disturb or cause a malformation in the development of an embryo or fetus. Teratogens may cause a birth defect in the child or cause termination of the pregnancy.

Why does John use a phr instead of one from his provider

Answers

Answer:

because he has high iQ

Explanation:

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