Answer:
decrease, increase
Explanation:
Most people in the US need to decrease their sodium intake and increase their potassium intake to meet recommendations for a healthy diet.
What is 'aetiology'? Select one: O a. Judgment of the likely or expected development of a disease O b. A judgment about what a particular illness or problem is c. The study of the causes of a disease O d. None of the above-mentioned
Answer:
The cause or the origin of the disease.
Explanation:
c
what are the three main stages of aerobic cellular respiration?
Is there a Right and Left of the Superior Sagittarius Sinus or does the right transverse sinus just drain into the Superior Sagittal Sinus?
Answer: The superior sagittal sinus drains into the transverse sinus. The transverse sinuses also receive venous drainage from small veins from both the middle ear and the mastoid cells. The transverse sinus becomes the sigmoid sinus before draining into the internal jugular vein.
Who can report an adverse event (AE)?
A. Participant
B. Participant's spouse
C. Caregiver
D. Participant's family member
E. Research Nurse
F. All of the above can report an AE
Hi !
Who can report an adverse event (AE)?
F. All of the above can report an AE
How long should a general warm-up involving moderate intensity last before beginning vigorous activity
Answer:
See ExplanationExplanation:
The time you commit to your warm-up should be relative to your level of involvement in your particular sport. So, for people just looking to increase their general level of health and fitness, a minimum of five to ten minutes would be enough.
What term describes the health hazard that causes disruption to an embryo or fetus.
Which dysrhythmia has premature P waves with a different configuration than other P waves in the cardiac cycle
The dysrhythmia that has premature P waves with a different configuration than other P waves in the cardiac cycle is Premature atrial complex.
What is cardiac cycle?Cardiac cycle is defined as the electrical and mechanical events that leads to a heart beat of the heart.
The cardiac cycle has three stages:
Atrial and Ventricular diastole: This is the relaxation of the atrium and ventricles.Atrial systole: This is the contraction of the atrium.Ventricular systole: This is the contraction of the ventricle.Premature atrial complex is a type of premature heartbeat that is developed from the atria as a result of premature P waves with a different configuration than other P waves in the cardiac cycle.
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which was the first healthy people in include overarching goals that included reducing health disaprities
Answer:
albert einstein
Explanation:
What type of defense mechanism is being displayed if a person attempts to justify his or her actions in a seemingly logical manner without examining the true motive for the behavior?
Regression
Sublimation
Projection
Rationalization
Answer:
rationalization
Explanation:
Rationalization .....try to justify your actions
Carlos would like to follow recommendations that would reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Based on this information, Carlos should ______.
Answer:
become more physically active
Explanation:
Carlos would like to follow recommendations that would reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Based on this information, Carlos should become more physically active
A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with
Answer:
A pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with pulmonary embolism.
Q.162.A 10 years old girl presented with fever and bruises for last 2 weeks. On examination she is pale; however there is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Her Hb is 6g/dl, TLC is 2700 and platelets are 90000. The most appropriate investigation to clinch the diagnosis is:
a)Bone marrow aspiration
b)Retics count
c)Bleeding time
d)PT and APTT
e)Factor VIII assay
Answer:
In a bone marrow aspiration, a health care provider uses a thin needle to remove a small amount of liquid bone marrow, usually from a spot in the back of your hipbone (pelvis).
A normal PT with an abnormal aPTT means that the defect lies within the intrinsic pathway, and a deficiency of factor VIII, IX, X, or XIII is suggested. A normal aPTT with an abnormal PT means that the defect lies within the extrinsic pathway and suggests a possible factor VII deficiency
Bleeding time is a medical test done on someone to assess their platelets function. It involves making a patient bleed, then timing how long it takes for them to stop bleeding using a stopwatch or other suitable devices.
which components of bile can become solids when thy interact with calcium
Abstract
Background: Previous studies have shown that human bile contains one or more factors that inhibit the precipitation of calcium carbonate from supersaturated solutions of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate. Lower concentrations of this factor have been observed in the gallbladder bile of patients with calcified gallstones. We hypothesized that gallbladder bile contains factors that inhibit calcium carbonate and these factors are present in varying concentrations in normal persons and in patients with cholesterol gallstones with and without calcium carbonate.
Methods: Gallbladder bile of patients without gallstones (n = 8) and of patients with cholesterol gallstones containing either calcium carbonate (n = 8) or other calcium salts (n = 8) was assayed for calcium carbonate inhibition. Individual components of bile (bilirubin, phospholipid, bile salts, and albumin) were tested in different concentrations in the same assay system. In addition, samples of model bile were tested.
Results: An inhibitory factor for calcium carbonate precipitation was present within all human gallbladder bile, irrespective of the absence, presence, or type of gallstones. The addition of a bilirubin-albumin solution to a supersaturated solution of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate entirely blocked precipitation of calcium carbonate from solution. In addition, serial dilutions of bilirubin exhibited a linear response between bilirubin concentration and inhibitory effect. Model bile and phospholipid dissolved in sodium taurocholate also exhibited a modest inhibitory effect on calcium carbonate precipitation.
Conclusions: We conclude that bilirubin, cholesterol, and phospholipids incrementally interfere with calcium carbonate precipitation in supersaturated solutions through the preferential formation of a soluble calcium complex.
which type of disease produces symptoms for which no physiological or anatomical cause can be identified?
Answer:
This would be in the "genetic disorder" category.
Explanation:
The doctor will find no medical cause or scientific explanation. In the area of medicine, this is known also as MUS - medically unexplained symptom.
Remember that this does not mean that the person is faking or that is all in their head because this is real to them. It can affect their ability to function and live a regular joe life.
Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority assessment
Answer:
Blood pressure
Explanation:
Methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. Methylergonovine causes continuous uterine contractions and may elevate the blood pressure. A priority assessment before the administration of the medication is to check the blood pressure. The obstetrician needs to be notified if hypertension is present. blood pressure is related specifically to the administration of this medication.
In a health survey, people might say that they eat better than they do. This can be seen as a ___________.
Answer:
response bias
Explanation:
Component(s) of a comprehensive fitness program include intensity, progression, consistency, variety as well as ____.
Answer:
The components of a comprehensive fitness program are:
Cardiovascular Endurance.
Muscular Strength.
Muscular endurance.
Flexibility.
Body Composition.
a nurse is teaching a patient with prostate cancer how to self administer abiraterone. which patient statement indicates the need for further education
The decision by the patient to avoid foods with potassium indicates that nurse needs to educate the patient more.
What is the route of administration of abiraterone?Abiraterone is a drug which is used for prostrate cancer treatment.
The route of administration of Abiraterone is orally preferably in an empty stomach.
Prednisolone lowers potassium levels, and foods rich in potassium or potassium supplements are required when taking it.
The complete question is given below:
A nurse is teaching a patient with prostate cancer how to self- administer abiraterone. Which patient statement indicates the need for further education?
A nurse is teaching a patient with prostate cancer how to self- administer abiraterone. Which patient statement indicates the need for further education?A. "I take prednisone twice a day while I'm on medication."
A nurse is teaching a patient with prostate cancer how to self- administer abiraterone. Which patient statement indicates the need for further education?A. "I take prednisone twice a day while I'm on medication."B. "This medication could make me feel more tired"
A nurse is teaching a patient with prostate cancer how to self- administer abiraterone. Which patient statement indicates the need for further education?A. "I take prednisone twice a day while I'm on medication."B. "This medication could make me feel more tired"C. "I will avoid foods with potassium"
A nurse is teaching a patient with prostate cancer how to self- administer abiraterone. Which patient statement indicates the need for further education?A. "I take prednisone twice a day while I'm on medication."B. "This medication could make me feel more tired"C. "I will avoid foods with potassium"D. "I will take this in the morning before I eat anything"
Therefore, the statement by the patient to avoid foods with potassium indicates that nurse needs to educate the patient more.
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Why does John use a phr instead of one from his provider
Answer:
because he has high iQ
Explanation:
Jarod finds that his facial skin growth has changed in shape and in color. he goes to his doctor, who refers him to a skin cancer specialist, also known as a:
dermatology medical assistant.
dermatologic oncologist.
dermatologist.
cosmetologist.
ans: b
Is Obstetrics and Gynecology a medical or surgical specialty?
Answer: Obstetrics and gynecology is a diverse, challenging and rewarding specialty. It combines medical and surgical skills. So what I'm trying to say is, somewhat both
Explanation:
Answer:
both
Explanation:
this specialty requires medical and surgical skills to reflect aspects of women's health during the cycle.
You need to make 350g of 15% zinc oxide. How much zinc oxide is required?
Answer:
52.5 gm
Explanation:
350 g * 15 % = 350 * .15 = 52.5 gm
A sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with
Answer:
a pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
A sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with a pulmonary embolism.
which method of communication between two or more members of a health care team is a formal means of communication
The method of communication between two or more members of a health care team that us a formal means of communication is Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.
What is communication?Communication is the process in which information is sent from the sender to the receiver and each understanding the purpose of the information.
Therefore, The method of communication between two or more members of a health care team that us a formal means of communication is Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.
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why is it acceptable to make co2 in rbcs found in pulmonary capillary blood?
Because you can convert that CO2 back in to H+ & HCO3-
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A nursing instructor is giving a lecture on the immune system. The instructor's discussion on phagocytosis will include:
The instructor's discussion on phagocytosis will include that Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytes, cells that perform phagocytosis.
What is phagocytosis?Phagocytosis is defined as the process used by immune system cells to eliminate foreign invading microorganisms from the body.
The neutrophils binds to the item it wants to engulf on the cell surface and draws the item inward while engulfing around it.
Examples of those phagocytic cells are the Neutrophils and monocytes.
Therefore, the instructor's discussion on phagocytosis will include that Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytes, cells that perform phagocytosis.
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Drugs that reduce depression without increasing mania, or reduce mania without increasing depression, are called
Answer:
Mood stabilizers.
Explanation:
Drugs that reduce depression without increasing mania, or reduce mania without increasing depression, are called mood stabilizers.
The term for a condition of wasting of the bone marrow and its subsequent replacement with cancer cells is
Answer:
Here
Explanation:
Aplastic anemia?
An estimated _____ to _____ percent of children are allergic to a specific food, almost always a common, healthy one.
An estimated 3 to 8 percent of children are allergic to a specific food, almost always a common, healthy one.
What is food allergy?Food allergy is defined as the situation whereby an individual's immune system reacts in an unpleasant manner after the consumption of a certain type of food.
These reaction may include the following:
itching in the mouth,swelling of the face, anddifficulty swallowing.This condition is common among children.
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A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled for a barium enema. What should the plan of care include today to prepare for the test tomorrow
Answer:
Encourage plenty of fluids.
Explanation:
The nurse should encourage plenty of fluids because adequate fluid intake is necessary to avoid dehydration that may be caused by the bowel preparation and to prevent fecal impaction after the procedure. The client may be placed on a low-residue diet 1 to 2 days before the procedure to reduce the contents in the GI tract. Fiber intake is limited in a low-residue diet. Because dairy products leave a residue, they aren't allowed the evening before the test. Clear liquids only are allowed the evening before the test.
