Answer:
1. Connects the larynx to the main bronchi k. trachea
2. Includes terminal and respiratory as subtypes b. bronchiole
3. Food passageway posterior to the trachea. e. esophagus
4. Covers the glottis during swallowing of food d. epiglottis
5. Contains the vocal cords g. larynx
6. Indentation on the lung where the lung root structures enter and exit f. hilum
7. Pleural layer lining the walls of the thorax j. parietal pleura
8. Site from which oxygen enters the pulmonary blood a. alveolus
9. Connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. i. pharyngotympanic tube
10. Pleural layer in contact with the surface of the lung l. visceral pleura
11. Increases air turbulence in the nasal cavity c. conchae
12. Separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity h. palate
Explanation:
1. The trachea is between the main bronchi and the larynx. It has semicircular rings of cartilage. The function of this organ is to conduct the air from the larynx to the primary/main bronchi.
2. After the primary (main), secondary, and tertiary bronchi, the terminal and the respiratory bronchioles come. They also conduct the air towards the alveoli so that the oxygen can enter the blood. The diameter of the bronchi terminal is smaller than the bronchi, and the diameter of the respiratory bronchi is smaller than the previous ones.
3 and 4. The esophagus is not part of the respiratory system. It is a tube that belongs to the digestive system since food has to pass through it to go to the stomach. The esophagus is posterior to the trachea, and the epiglottis closes the entrance to the larynx when we swallow to stop food from going to the lungs.
5. The vocal folds are in the larynx. This one is between the trachea and the pharynx. There are two types of vocal folds, the true and the false vocal folds. Both of them vibrate when air passes through them, allowing us to speak and make different tones.
6. The hilum is the lungs section where the bronchus, the pulmonary artery, and the pulmonary vein enter the lung. It is an indention that is in the middle part of the lungs.
7 and 10. The pleura has two sides, the parietal one and the visceral one. The first one is in contact with the lungs and the second one with the thorax's walls. Between them, there is a space called the pleural cavity. The cavity has fluid that allows the movement of the two pleurae. As a result, the lungs can move and fill with air.
8. After the respiratory bronchioles, we have the alveolar duct. The alveolar ducts lead to alveolar sacs. The alveolar sacs has the alveolus. They are thin walls that are in contact with capillaries. When the air is there, the oxygen passes through the thin walls. Then it goes through the capillaries' walls and into the blood.
9. The pharyngotympanic tube is also known as the Eustachian tube. It connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. Its function is to regulate the pressure in the ear.
11. The conchae are in the nasal cavity. They are three projections in the nasal cavity, the inferior one, the middle one, and the superior. Their function is to increase the surface of the nasal cavity so that more air can enter with every inspiration. As they are projections, they modify the laminar airflow producing a turbulent flow.
12. The palate is between the nasal cavity and the oral cavity. It has two parts, the soft palate, and the hard palate. The palate helps in the production of certain sounds and divides the nasal cavity from the mouth.
The most intense earthquakes happen at
1. Plate boundaries
2.subduction zones
3.mid - ocean ridges
4. Collision plate boundaries
Answer:
The answer is #2. Subduction Zones
How many federal agencies are responsible for managing land resources in the United States?
Answer:
How many federal agencies are responsible for managing land resources? Most of the current land use concerns relate to federal lands controlled by four federal agencies: Bureau of Land Management, U.S. Forest Service, National Park Service, and Fish and Wildlife Service.
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is 4 on edge
Explanation:
Una de las aplicaciones más importa del electromagnetismo son
Answer:
Las principales aplicaciones del electromagnetismo se emplean en: La electricidad. El magnetismo. La conductividad eléctrica y superconductividad.
Explanation:
Please help
ASAP 10 points
Answer:
I would guess B, systematic sampling. I might be wrong though.
Explanation:
Which of the following pathway would a protein destined for the interior of the nucleus follow
Answer: The protein is translated on free ribosomes and then passes through the pore complex to enter the nucleus.
Explanation:
How do endophytes affect grazing animals?
A. Endophytes pull nutrients from the soil, making plants more nutritious for grazing animals.
B. Endophytes that produce toxins can be poisonous to grazing animals.
C. Endophytes fix nitrogen from the air, making plants more nutritious for grazing animals.
D. Endophytes are poisonous to plants, depriving grazing animals of forage.
Answer:
B. Endophytes that produce toxins can be poisonous to grazing animals.
What is homeostasis? What are some of the things my body does to keep it at the right temperature?
Answer:
Blood flow to your skin increases to speed up heat loss into your surroundings, and you might also start sweating so the evaporation of sweat from your skin can help you cool off.As heat is lost to the environment, the body temperature returns to normal.
In an experiment, a small dialysis bag is filled with a 20% salt solution. It is placed in a
beaker filled with a 40% salt solution. Assuming that water can pass through the
small pores of the dialysis bag, whereas the large salt molecules cannot, what will
happen to the size of the dialysis bag?
Answer:
The bag will get smaller
Explanation:
Osmosis can be defined as the process of diffusion or movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher concentration of water (i.e., lower concentration solution) to a lower concentration of water. For example, in cells, there are specialized pores called 'aquaporins' which are membrane proteins that form channels to transport water molecules by facilitated diffusion. In this case, the outside of the bag has a higher salt concentration than inside, thereby water molecules will move by facilitated diffusion through pores from inside to outside the bag.
In the cell bio lab, we use company manufactured gels, however you can make you own polyacrylamide gels. List all of the ingredients found in an SDS-PAGE gel. Which ingredients are responsible for polymerizing the solution?
Answer:
The list of ingredients are used in this method are as follow-
1. Acrylamide - mostly 30%
2. Bisacrylamide - mostly 0.8%
3. 1.5M Tris-Hcl pH 6.8 for stacking gel and 8.8 for separating gel.
4. 10% SDS
5. 10% APS
6. TEMED
7. Double distilled water
Polymerization:
Acrylamide is a polymer that is used to dissolved in buffer and bisacrylamide is the cross linking agen.
Two types of gels are prepared for separation of protein. Stacking gel is usually 4 or 6% and separating gel is usually 10 to 20%. Lower concentration of stacking gel will allow the migration of all the protein same because of larger pore size. It will stack or line up the proteins for its next level of separation.
Higher concentration of separating gel will provide resistance to the movement of protein because of the low pore size and therefore linear bands can be achieved neatly.
Eukaryotes are different than Prokaryotes, because only eukaryotes have:
A. DNA
B. Capsule
C. Organelles
D. Plasma membrane
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Have a nice day
Eukaryotes are different from prokaryotes because only eukaryotes have Organelles. The correct option is C.
What are prokaryotes?Prokaryotes are primitive organism that is single-celled and their cell contains a capsule and flagella or cilia for locomotion and finding food. These organisms lack true organelles.
Eukaryotes are organisms that can be single-celled or multi-celled. They contain the true nucleus and organelle in the cell and the cell is covered with a cell membrane and a nucleus is present that contains the DNA or the organism.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, both contain DNA, a plasma membrane. But in prokaryotes, an organelle is absent, and they are covered by a capsule.
Thus, the correct option is C. Organelles.
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the valency of flourin is 1 what is the valence electron
Answer:
Fluorine has 7 valence electrons and would need another one to have a full outer valence electrons.
what is fermentation process?
Answer:
Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic substrates through the action of enzymes. In biochemistry, it is narrowly defined as the extraction of energy from carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen.
Explanation:
I hope it will help you
Answer:
Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic substrates through the action of enzymes through chemical breakdown of a substance by bacteria, yeasts, or other microorganisms,
Explanation:
Have a nice day
Guinea pigs can produce different coat colors, white, brown, and mixed white/brown (agouti). The allele B is codominant with allele W (white coat). Cross an agouti-colored Guinea pig with a brown Guinea pig. What are the odds of the offspring?
Answer:
Brown
Explanation:because the agouti itself is a mixture that remains of a pale brown color and the melanin content in the animals is in the darker colors so it is more likely that the brown color is predominant to the agouti due to the content of melanin that it
The descendants of a cross between an agouti heterozygous (AB) colored Guinea pig and a brown (BB) colored Guinea pig are half heterozygous agouti, half homozygous brown. The correct option is A.
What exactly is codominance?Codominance is a genetic effect that happens whenever the alleles are expressed in heterozygotes.
In this particular instance, allele B co-dominates with allele W, resulting in heterozygous (WB) colored Guinea pigs like one of the parents.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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The missing options of the question are:
A. 1/2 heterozygous brown, 1/2 homozygous agouti.B. 1/2 homozygous white, 1/2 heterozygous brown.C. 1/4 homozygous brown.D. 1/2 heterozygous agouti, 1/4 white.Fill in the bottom line of DNA with the complementary base pair:
Answer: ACCTGATCGTAGCT
Explanation:
Keep in mind that in DNA replication, the matching base pairs are A and T (adenine and thymine) and C and G (Cytosine and Guanine). This means that for DNA complementary strands, A's can ONLY bind with T's and C's can only bind with G's , and vice versa. So, your answer for the picture you have given is ACCTGATCGTAGCT
From a chemical view, how is an amino acid is being recognized by its specific aminoacyl tRNA synthetase?
Answer:
An aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase (aaRS or ARS), also called tRNA-ligase, is an enzyme that attaches the appropriate amino acid onto its corresponding tRNA. It does so by catalyzing the transesterification of a specific cognate amino acid or its precursor to one of all its compatible cognate tRNAs to form an aminoacyl-tRNA.
In sweet peas, the genes for flower color and pollen grain shape are 11 cM apart. A pure-breeding purple flowering plant with round pollen grains is crossed to a pure-breeding red flowering plant with long pollen grains. The resulting F1 offspring are all purple flowering plants with long pollen grains. What percent of offspring from a test cross analysis of the F1 individuals would you expect to be purple flowering plants with long pollen grains
Answer:
The correct answer is - 44.5%.
Explanation:
In this question, there are two traits are given, flower color and pollen shape. The purple flowers and long pollen are wild-type (dominant). Red flowers and round pollen are mutant or recessive. The cross is between a pure breeding purple and round pollen plant with red and long pollen plant. The offspring are all purple and long pollen plants. However, the offspring would be all heterozygotes genotype for both traits.
Linkage can be calculated as -
Linkage distance = % of recombinant offsprings formed in a test cross.
parental types are purple and long pollen, red and round pollen.
So, the recombinant type would be purple and round pollen, red and long pollen.
11% of the offspring would be recombinant type as the distance is 11cM. Therefore, 89% of the progeny would be parental type. Which means this 89% of parental offsprings have equal proportions of both phenotypes of parents. So, the purple flowers and long pollen would be half of 89%.
that is 89/2 = 44.5%.
Chlorophylls are a. seen best in carrots, beets, and red ferns. b. pigments that absorb only blue and green wavelengths. c. the main pigments that absorb the wavelengths most efficient at driving photosynthesis. d. All of the answers are correct.
Answer:
....kghvkhbiblyhlugkufv
Explanation:.....
Answer:A
Explanation:
I think A because they are all plants
is mucous an enzyme or harmone
Answer:
It's an Enzyme.
Explanation:
It is a viscous colloid containing inorganic salts, antimicrobial enzymes (such as lysozymes), immunoglobulins (especially IgA), and glycoproteins such as lactoferrin and mucins, which are produced by goblet cells in the mucous membranes and submucosal glands.
Name three ways that humans benefit from the use of seedless plants
Answer:
They support life by being the first vegetation to spring up on harsh terrain where soil is scarce. Even when they perish, seedless plants give back to nature. Certain seedless plants like moss and liverworts actually leave behind a layer of fertile soil for other plants when they perish.
Explanation:
Seedless plants have historically played a role in human life through uses as tools, fuel, and medicine. Dried peat moss, Sphagnum, is commonly used as fuel in some parts of Europe and is considered a renewable resource.
A population of 100 sea stars is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The trait for long arms is completely dominant to the trait for short arms. In this population, 40% of the alleles for this trait are dominant, and 60% are recessive. What percent of sea stars in this population are heterozygous
Answer:
In population genetics, the Hardy–Weinberg principle, also known as the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, model, theorem, or law, states that allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences
Explanation:
An allele frequency is computed by dividing the total number of copies of all the alleles at that specific genetic locus in the population by the number of times the allele of interest is observed in a population. The decimal, percentage, or fractional forms of allele frequencies are all acceptable.
What sea stars are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, model, theorem, or law of population genetics states that, in the absence of additional evolutionary factors, allele, and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation.
Therefore, The lesson and figure 12.12's allele frequencies are used in this question as well. The percentage of individuals with two dominant arm length alleles can be calculated by multiplying 0.6 by 0.6. The population size (100 people) multiplied by that percentage yields the number of people that are homozygous dominant for the arm length allele.
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Wheres the cell membrane located?
Answer:
in cells the cell membrain is located in the middel but this can vary in diffrent cells Explanation:
The endogenous cholesterol synthesis by the liver that we need to function normally it can lead to
plaque formation within the blood vessels.
Оа.
False
b. True
Answer:
It should be true
Explanation:
online health class and quick double check
in some plants pink flowers are dominant over yellow flowers if Mario crosses two hybrids what happens
Which of the following factors would LIMIT carrying capacity?
A. Far from factories or roads
B. A large nearby river
C. Abundant food
D. A small space to live in
Answer:
D. A small space to live in
Explanation:
Having a small space to live in would directly limit carrying capacity.
Since there is a small space, only a few organisms would be able to live in that space.
This means that carrying capacity is limited, because the space does not have enough room to sustain more people.
So, the correct answer is D. A small space to live in
Why does each trophic level have a smaller amount of organisms or biomass than the one below it? A. Because higher trophic levels have lower survival rates for offspring. B. Because each trophic level has larger organisms than the one below it. C. Because the higher trophic levels have to hunt the lower trophic levels, so they- use most of the energy that they gain from eating. D. Because each trophic level is only absorbing 10% of the previous, so there is not enough energy to sustain larger numbers.
Each trophic level has a smaller amount of organisms or biomass than the one below it because it is only absorbing 10% of the energy from the lower level, so there is not enough energy to sustain larger numbers.
A trophic level refers to a level in the food chain consisting of the same or biologically similar organisms. Examples of trophic levels include producer, consumer, and decomposer.Organisms in the lower trophic level serve as food for organisms in the next trophic level of the food chain.Only about 10% of the energy derivable from one trophic level gets to the next trophic level, the remaining is lost as heat during metabolic processes.Hence, the number of organisms progressively decreases as we climb higher in the food chain. The limit to the amount of energy transferred as we move higher means that the number of individuals that can be sustained will also be limited.The correct option would, therefore, be D.
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A 17-year-old student has experienced reversible, periodic attacks of chest tightness with coughing, wheezing, and hyperpnea. She states that expiration is more difficult than inspiration. She is most comfortable sitting forward with arms leaning on some support. X-rays revealed mild overinflation of the chest. Results from laboratory and pulmonary function tests are as follows:
• Frequency 20 breaths/min
• Vital capacity (VC) 2.9 L
• FEV1.0 1.4 L
• FEV1.0/FVC 56%
• Functional residual capacity (FRC) 3.89 L
• Total lung capacity (TLC) 6.82 L
• PaO2 70 mm Hg
• PaCO2 26 mm Hg
• Pulse 108 beats/min
• BP 120/76 mm Hg
Intermittent use of a bronchial smooth muscle dilator (1:1000 epinephrine by nebulizer) for several days caused marked improvement, resulting in the following laboratory and pulmonary function tests:
• VC 4.15 L
• FEV1.0 3.1 L
• FEV1.0/FVC >75%
• FRC 3.7 L
• TLC 5.96L
• PaO2 89 mm Hg
• PaCO2 38 mm Hg
• Pulse 129 beats/min BP 122/78 mm Hg
1. What is the disorder of this 17-year-old student?
2. Is this primarily a restrictive or an obstructive disorder? Why?
3. Write the formula for determining residual volume (RV).
4. Determine the residual volume (RV) before and after the use of the bronchodilator.
a. RV before using the bronchodilator:b. RV after using the bronchodilator:
5. Why is expiration more difficult than inspiration in this person?
6. What does the change in pulmonary function after the bronchodilator therapy indicate?
7. Why does the bronchodilator exaggerate the tachycardia?
8. What causes the hypoxemia and the hypocalcemia in this person?
9. A beta2-adrenergic agent was prescribed for further use because it has less cardio stimulatory (beta1) effect. Based on your knowledge of beta1 and beta2 receptors, why is this a good suggestion?
10. An anticholinergic agent was also suggested as a possible nebulizer agent. How might this helps the breathing problem?
Answer:
Frecuencia 20 respiraciones / min
Explanation:
Linda received the flu vaccine this year.
Which of the following statements is true?
Linda's T-cells will produce memory cells against the virus.
Linda's body will produce antigens against the flu virus.
Linda's immune system will produce lifelong immunity against any form of the flu.
Linda's immune system will produce antibodies against the flu virus.
Answer:
Linda's immune system will produce antibodies against the flu virus
Answer:
Linda's immune system will produce antibodies against the flu virus
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15. Assuming the fluorescence threshold is set to be 1. Which gene has the highest gene expression rate? What is the Ct value? Gene with highest expression = ______________ Ct value = _______________
Answer:
The correct answer is - Gene 1 and 14.5 (or 14).
Explanation:
The cycle threshold is denoted as Ct value. It is the cross point at the threshold line meets with fluorescence signal reaction curve. In the given RTpcr experiment, the threshold line is fluorescence intensity 1 thus, Ct value for each gene will be the point at which each curve meets the fluorescence intensity line at 1. Ct value of is inversely proportional to amount of nucleic acid in the given sample.
Here, the Ct for gene 1 is the lowest, so the amount of DNA would be highest.
Gene with highest expression= Gene 1
Ct value= 14.5
Which organelle is labeled A?
If Sarah had skin vesicles on the anterolateral region of her neck, which peripheral nerve is infected by the virus? To which peripheral nerve plexus does this nerve belong?
Answer:
The correct answer is -
- transverse cutaneous nerve
- cervical plexus
Explanation:
transverse cutaneous nerve is infected by the virus that causes skin vesicles on the anterolateral region of her neck. It belongs to the cervical peripheral nerve plexus.
