Determine a series of transformations that would map polygon ABCDE onto polygon A’B’C’D’E’?

Answer:

3/13 which is 0.23 as a decimal

Step-by-step explanation:

4, -1/4 -1,

we can do this simply by

(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

and simplifying

Answer:

5 , |-5|

Step-by-step explanation:

2 of the above are the absolute value of 5

The two numbers whose absolute value is 5 are 5 and -5.

Numbers whose absolute value is 5 can be both positive and negative.

The absolute value of a number is its distance from zero on the number line, so any number that is 5 units away from zero in either the positive or negative direction will have an absolute value of 5.

Here are the numbers whose absolute value is 5:

5 (positive 5, because it's 5 units to the right of zero)

-5 (negative 5, because it's 5 units to the left of zero)

Hence, 5 and -5  are the two numbers whose absolute value is 5.

To learn more on Number system click:

https://brainly.com/question/1763119

#SPJ3

sorry po di ko ma intindihan

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry po

Answer:

three cytliys and six ka

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it hlp you

Answer:

7<1+x

1+x>7

x>7-1

x>6

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps a little

Answer:

[tex] {(a + b)}^{2} = {a}^{2} + 2ab + {b}^{2} \\ n = 2ab[/tex]

Answer:

-33

Step-by-step explanation:

Rearrange the equation by subtracting what is to the right of the equal sign from both sides of the equation :

396/x-10-(-22)=0

Answer:

-33

Step-by-step explanation:

my work is done in the image below

Answer:

1,000,000

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct proof that proves that BE ≅ CF is the proof in option C. (see attachment).

Recall the following:

The isosceles triangle ABC given is shown in the image attached below.

To prove that, BE ≅ CF, establish the fact that △ABE ≅ △ACF by the AAS Congruence Theorem.

Since △ABE ≅ △ACF, therefore BE ≅ CF by the CPCTC Theorem.

Thus, the correct proof that proves that BE ≅ CF is the proof in option C. (see attachment).

Learn more about AAS Congruence Theorem on:

https://brainly.com/question/3168048

I hope this is the right answer and if it's not then my apologies.

And sorry it took so long.

Answer:

Both angels are 70 and both added are 140.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because of the rules, that's names i never remember angle 1 and angle 2 are both 70° and obiously they equal 140.

Answer:

...............c

Step-by-step explanation:

Let y be f(x)

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto y=4x-12[/tex]

Swipe the values

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto x=4y-12[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 4y=x+12[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto y=\dfrac{x+12}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto y=\dfrac{1}{4}x+3[/tex]

Hence.

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto f^{-1}(x)=\dfrac{1}{4}x+3[/tex]

Let y=f(x)

Now interchange the variables

The y we need now

Divide both sides by 4

This is the inverse

Answer:

so the answer is 5

Step-by-step explanation:

20/4=5

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(p = 2)     = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

two years at 3% = .03*2 = .06

so

.06 times original deposit = 72

so 72/.06

which is

1200

Answer:

161 donuts

Step-by-step explanation:

(231+89)/2 then add one more donut as the question asked for at least $231

320/2 = 160 + one more donut = 161 donuts have to sold to make at least $231.

You have add the machine price as he wouldn't be making a profit off it if he didn't surpass what he spent for it.

Check your work by doing 161 times 2 minus 89 minus the 1 donut added and you'll get the $231. Not subtracting the one shows the profit of a dollar aka at least $231

Answer:

z. sjshshdbd.d.difffjfjfjf

Explanation:

On taking LHS

Cos[(3π/2)+θ]Cos(2π+θ)[Cot{(3π/2)-θ}+Cot(2π+θ)]

We know that

π = 180°

2π = 2×180° = 360°

3π/2 = (3×180°)/2 = 540°/2 = 270°

Now

LHS becomes

Cos(270°+θ)Cos(360°+θ)[Cot(270°-θ)+Cot(360°+θ)]

We know that

Cos (270°+θ) = Sin θ

Cos (360°+θ) = Cos θ

Cot (270°-θ) = Tan θ

Cot (360°+θ) = Cot θ

→ Sin θ Cos θ [Tan θ + Cot θ]

→ Sinθ Cosθ[(Sinθ/Cosθ)+(Cosθ/Sinθ)]

→ Sinθ Cosθ[(Sin²θ+Cos²θ)/(SinθCosθ)]

→ Sin θ Cos θ [1/(Sin θ Cos θ)]

Since Sin²θ+Cos²θ = 1

→ (Sin θ Cos θ)/(Sin θ Cos θ)

→ 1

→ RHS

→ LHS = RHS

Hence, Proved.

Here are the formulae that I have used:

→ π = 180°

→ Cos (270°+θ) = Sin θ

→ Cos (360°+θ) = Cos θ

→ Cot (270°-θ) = Tan θ

→ Cot (360°+θ) = Cot θ

Here are the Trigonometric Identities that I have used:

→ Sin²θ+Cos²θ = 1

Answer:

96

Step-by-step explanation:

The length of the large rectangle is: 5 units

The width of the large rectangle is: 7 units

- > Area of the large rectangle = length × width  = 7*5 = 35 square units

The length of the middle rectangle is: 7 units

The width of the middle rectangle is: 4 units

- > Area of the middle rectangle = length × width  = 7*4 = 28 square units

The length of the small rectangle is: 7 units

The width of the small rectangle is: 3 units        

- > Area of the small rectangle = length × width  = 7*3 = 21 square units

Area of top and the bottom triangles =2* 1/2(bh) = 4*3 = 12 square units

Then we find the total surface surface area by adding up all of these  

- > 35 + 28 + 21 + 12 = 96 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

I believe it would be 29days

Months with 31 days are the only ones where the first and last day of the month fall on the same day of the week. So, correct option is D.

The months with the same day of the week for their first and last day have either 30 or 31 days. This is due to the repeating pattern of days in a month.

Let's consider the possibilities:

If a month has 30 days and the first day falls on a Sunday, then the last day of the month would fall on a Tuesday, which is two days ahead. This means that the next month's first day would be a Wednesday. Since there are only 7 days in a week, the first and last day cannot be the same for a 30-day month.

If a month has 31 days and the first day falls on a Sunday, then the last day of the month would fall on a Monday, which is just one day ahead. This means that the next month's first day would also be a Monday, making the first and last day the same for this 31-day month.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 31

To learn more about days click on,

https://brainly.com/question/29513526

#SPJ2

Answer:

10=20. divisible by 2 (2,5 = 10) both of the factor are prime

Step-by-step explanation:

BIG BRAIN

Step-by-step explanation:

8

a. total cost ($)

→ 25 = 25×2.5 = $62.5

→ 50 = 50 × 2.5 = $125

→ 75 = 75 × 2.5 = $187.5

b. 2.5n

c. $400/2.5 = 160

therefore, she can make 160 crafts by $400.

9. 7x + 12 = 18

→ 7x = 18 - 12 = 6

→ x = 6/7

therefore value of x is 6/7.

hope this answer helps you dear...take care

Answer:

1.)  1 ,2, 31, 62

2.)  1, 3, 5, 9

3.) 540

Step-by-step explanation:

1.)  1x62= 62

2x31= 62

31x2= 62

62x1=62

Each of these number are a multiple of 62.

2.) 1x45=45

3x15=45

5x9= 45

9x5= 45

3.) 420÷2= 210

420÷3= 140

420÷5= 84

420÷6= 70

420÷9= 46.667 This number is not a multiple of 420 because the answer is in decimals which means 9 is not divisible by 420

540÷2= 270

540÷3= 180

540÷5= 108

540÷6= 90

540÷9= 60

540÷10= 54

2, 3, 5, 6, 9 and 10 is divisible by all of these numbers

Answer:

1)  1 ,2, 31, 62

2)  1, 3, 5, 9

3.) 540

Step-by-step explanation:

1)  62 would be divisible by 2 because its an even number, and if you split 62 in half, you would get 31.

2) 4+5 = 9. 3 and 9 are both divisible by 9, and 5 is divisible by 5.

3) All of the numbers are divisible by 10, 5, and 2 in the list. 250 is not divisible by 3, so we can take it off the list.  The rest of the numbers are all divisible by 6. All we have left is 9. Both 420 and 510 add their values up to 6, which is not divisible by 9. That leaves us with 540 as our answer.

-kiniwih426