An aluminium block of mass 1 kg is heated by an electric heater for 3 minutes and a temperature rise of 15 °C is recorded. If the electric heater is connected to a voltmeter which gives a reading of 30 V and an ammeter which gives a reading of 2.5 A, calculate the specific heat capacity of the aluminium.​

Answer:

5/3 m/s or

6 km/h

Explanation:

really ? the average speed is just the straight connection in the graph from A to D.

that means the travel time was 40-10 seconds = 30 seconds.

and the distance traveled was 60-10 = 50 meters.

so, the average speed was

50 meters / 30 seconds

to bring this to standard m/s

5 m / 3 s = 5/3 m/s

or to standard km/h

an hour has 60 minutes or 120 30-seconds intervals

50 m/ 30 s × 120/120 = 6000 m / h = 6 km/h

Answer:

the child with the smallest area will be the one who sinks

Explanation:

The child who will sink to the ground is the one who exerts the greatest pressure on the ground, even though the force, which in this case is equal to the weight, is equal.

Pressure is defined by

           P = F / A

in this case the strength of the children is their weight

           F = W

           P = W / A

therefore the pressure changes are in the area of ​​contact with the ground, the child with the smallest area will be the one who sinks

B

Explanation:

BECAUSE IT WAS GOING UPWORD THEN IT'S VELOCITY WAS DECREASING -10MS¹

Answer:

Explanation:

From physics, which is directly related to math (especially when it comes to parabolic motion!), we learn that at the very top of the parabola the object has to stop for a millisecond so it can turn around and fall back to earth. This translates to a velocity of 0 at its highest point. So B.

Answer:

Following are the response to the given question:

Explanation:

[tex]F_2=mgh_2+\frac{1}{2}mv_2^2+\frac{1}{2}mR^2(W)^2\\\\\therefore \\\\ \to WR=v_2\\\\E_2=Mgh_2+MV_2^2[/tex]

Answer:

Joule

Explanation:

the unit of work is Joule determined by the letter J.

Answer:

Explanation:

Joule is defined as the work done by a force of one newton causing a displacement of one meter. Sometimes, newton-metre (N-m) is also used for measuring work.

Answer:

The ball has a potential energy of 53 J.

Explanation:

Mechanical energy, E = Kinetic energy + Potential energy

E = K.E + P.E

65 = 12 + P.E

P.E = 65 – 12

P.E = 53 J

Therefore the potential energy of the ball is 53 J

Answer:

53

Explanation:

on e2021

Explanation:

Measurement is defined as the act of measuring or the size of something. An example of measurement means the use of a ruler to determine the length of a piece of paper. An example of measurement is 15" by 25". ... The dimension, quantity, or capacity determined by measuring.

Measurement refers to the comparison of unknown physical quantity with a known quantity.

for eg. measurement of body while sewing clothes.......

Answer:

Explanation:

Suppose you have 3 resistors each with a value of 3. If you placed them in parallel, would you get 3

1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1/r

The denominator doesn't change. So add the numerators.

(1 + 1 + 1)/3 = 3/3 = 1

So the question is faulty.

1 = 1/r

1*r = 1

r = 1/1

r = 1

Answer:

0.25p.a

Explanation:

force=15N area=60m²

so pressure =force/area =15N/60m²=0.25p.a

Answer:

Copper isn't ferromagnetic,

Aluminum isn't ferromagnetic,

String has a ferromagnetic property

So in conclusion:

The answer is strings :)

Answer:

he will be in profit

Explanation:

Himalayan region are high above the sea level so the gravity will be less there compared to the Terai region

Terai lies way below he Himalayan region so the pull of gravity will be more compared to Himalayan region

that's why he will be in profit but not loss

Answer:

The induced current direction as viewed is clockwise

Explanation:

Lenz's Law states that the induced e. m. f. causes current to be driven in the loop of wire in such a way as to generate magnetic field that are oppose the magnetic flux change which is the source of the induced current

Therefore, as the magnet approaches the coil with the south pole,  the coil produces current equivalent to the upward movement of the south pole of a permanent magnet through it which according to Flemings Right Hand Rule is clockwise

Therefore;

The direction of the induced current in the loop (as viewed from above, looking down the magnet) is clockwise

Answer:

750 w : time = 1hour

Explanation:

750x1hour

=750 watt-hours

Answer:

Option D. 9.47 V

Explanation:

We'll begin by calculating the equivalent resistance of the circuit. This can be obtained as follow:

Resistor 1 (R₁) = 20 Ω

Resistor 2 (R₂) = 30 Ω

Resistor 3 (R₃) = 45 Ω

Equivalent Resistance (R) =?

R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ (series connections)

R = 20 + 30 + 45

R = 95 Ω

Next, we shall determine the current in the circuit. This can be obtained as follow:

Voltage (V) = 45 V

Equivalent Resistance (R) = 95 Ω

Current (I) =?

V = IR

45 = I × 95

Divide both side by 95

I = 45 / 95

I = 0.4737 A

Finally, we shall determine, the voltage across R₁. This can be obtained as follow:

NOTE: Since the resistors are in series connection, the same current will pass through them.

Current (I) = 0.4737 A

Resistor 1 (R₁) = 20 Ω

Voltage 1 (V₁) =?

V₁ = IR₁

V₁ = 0.4737 × 20

V₁ = 9.47 V

Therefore, the voltage across R₁ is 9.47 V.

Answer:

9.47

Explanation:

Just Took the Test

Answer:

600 volts

Explanation: just do 4.5x10^-5c lol i hope this helps if it dont im so sorry

Answer:

C. 29.21 m³

Explanation:

Given the following data;

To find the final volume, we would use Boyle's law;

Boyles states that when the temperature of an ideal gas is kept constant, the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume occupied by the gas.

Mathematically, Boyles law is given by;

PV = K

[tex] P_{1}V_{1} = P_{2}V_{2} [/tex]

Making V2 the subject of formula, we have;

[tex] V_{2} = \frac {P_{1}V_{1}}{P_{2}} [/tex]

Substituting the values into the formula, we have;

[tex] V_{2} = \frac {18.9 * 3.4}{2.2} [/tex]

[tex] V_{2} = \frac {64.26}{2.2} [/tex]

Final volume, V2 = 29.21 m³

Answer:

may be d)45°

Explanation:

Answer:

The maximum velocity is 1.58 m/s.

Explanation:

A spring pendulum with stiffness k = 100N/m is attached to an object of mass m = 0.1kg, pulls the object out of the equilibrium position by a distance of 5cm, and then lets go of the hand for the oscillating object. Calculate the achievable vmax.

Spring constant, K = 100 N/m

mass, m = 0.1 kg

Amplitude, A = 5 cm = 0.05 m

Let the angular frequency is w.

[tex]w = \sqrt{K}{m}\\\\w = \sqrt{100}{0.1}\\\\w = 31.6 rad/s[/tex]

The maximum velocity is

[tex]v_{max} = w A\\\\v_{max} = 31.6\times 0.05 = 1.58 m/s[/tex]

Answer: The mass of copper liberated is 0.196 g.

Explanation:

The oxidation half-reaction of copper follows:

[tex]Cu\rightarrow Cu^{2+}+2e^-[/tex]

Calculating the theoretical mass deposited by using Faraday's law, which is:

[tex]m=\frac{M\times I\times t(s)}{n\times F}[/tex] ......(1)

where,

m = actual mass deposited = ? g

M = molar mass of metal = 63 g/mol

I = average current = 2 A

t = time period in seconds = 5 min = 300 s (Conversion factor: 1 min = 60 sec)

n = number of electrons exchanged = 2

F = Faraday's constant = 96500 C/mol

Putting values in equation 1, we get:

[tex]m=\frac{63 g/mol\times 2A\times 300s}{2\times 96500 C/mol}\\\\m=0.196g[/tex]

Hence, the mass of copper liberated is 0.196 g.

Answer:

A)take motion and induce a current

Explanation:

i hope it will be helpful

Yes it is the measurement in science

Answer:

16.6 °C

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Temperature at upper fixed point (Tᵤ) = 100 °C

Resistance at upper fixed point (Rᵤ) = 75 Ω

Temperature at lower fixed point (Tₗ) = 0 °C

Resistance at lower fixed point (Rₗ) = 63.00Ω

Resistance at room temperature (R) = 64.992 Ω

Room temperature (T) =?

T – Tₗ / Tᵤ – Tₗ = R – Rₗ / Rᵤ – Rₗ

T – 0 / 100 – 0 = 64.992 – 63  / 75 – 63

T / 100 = 1.992 / 12

Cross multiply

T × 12 = 100 × 1.992

T × 12 = 199.2

Divide both side by 12

T = 199.2 / 12

T = 16.6 °C

Thus, the room temperature is 16.6 °C

Answer:

No, it's not there.

Explanation:

For a machine to be 100% efficient, it has to be with an output which is equal to its input. But machines have an out put less than an input, hence efficiency below 100%.

Answer:

I HOPE IT WILL HELP YOU.

:D

Complete Question:

A long distance runner running a 5.0km track is pacing himself by running 4.5km at 9.0km/hr and the rest at 12.5km/hr. What is the average speed?​

Answer:

Average speed = 9.7333 km/h

Explanation:

Given the following data;

To find the average speed;

First of all, we would determine the time taken to cover distance A in speed A by using the formula;

[tex] Time \ A = \frac {Distance \; A}{Speed \; A} [/tex]

Substituting the values into the formula, we have;

[tex] Time \ A = \frac {4.5}{9.5} [/tex]

Time A = 0.4737 hours

Total distance = distance A + distance B

5 = 4.5 + distance B

Distance B = 5 - 4.5

Distance B = 0.5 Km

Next, we would determine the time to cover distance B in speed B;

[tex] Time \ B = \frac {0.5}{12.5} [/tex]

Time A = 0.04 hours

Total time = time A + time B

Total time = 0.4737 + 0.04

Total time = 0.5137 hours

Now, we would solve for the average speed;

Mathematically, the average speed of an object is given by the formula;

[tex] Average \; speed = \frac {total \; distance}{total \; time} [/tex]

[tex] Average \; speed = \frac {5}{0.5137} [/tex]

Average speed = 9.7333 km/h

Answer:

     i =[tex]- \frac{r \ A'}{2 \ rho}[/tex] ,  i =  0.92   A

Explanation:

This exercise asks for the electromotive force, which can be calculated with Faraday's law

          fem = [tex]- \frac{d \Phi_B }{dt}[/tex]

where the magnetic flux

          Ф = B. A

bold letters indicate vectors. We can write this equation

          Ф = B A cos θ

In this case the magnetic field is perpendicular to the page and the normal to the loop of the loop is also parallel to the page, therefore the angle is zero and the cosine is 1

the loop is

          A = π r²

we substitute in the first equation

          fem = - π r² [tex]\frac{dB}{dt}[/tex]

we substitute the values

          fem = -π r² 1

          fem = - π r²

to calculate the current let's use ohm's law

           V = i R

            R = ρ L / A'

where A 'is the area of ​​the wire and L is the length of the loop

            L = 2π r

            V = i (ρ 2π r / A ')

            I = [tex]\frac{V \ A'}{2\pi \ r \ rho}[/tex]

In this case

           V = fem

           I = fem / R            

           i =[tex]- \frac{r \ A'}{2 \ rho}[/tex]

In order to complete the calculation, you need the radius of the loop and / or the wire cutter.

if we assume that the loop has a radius of r = 1 cm = 0.01 m and an area of ​​the wire   A'= π 10⁻⁶ m²   a radius of the wire 1 mm

           i = - 10⁻² π 10⁻⁶ / ( 2 1.7 10-8)

           i =  0.92   A