Answer:
a pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
A sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with a pulmonary embolism.
The preferred term to use for weight recommendations and for establishing what body weight should be:
Answer:
Explanation:
Healthy weight
Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately _____calories are required from the mother each day.
Answer:
500
Explanation:
Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately 500 calories are required from the mother each day.
For an individual with abnormally high or low heart rates, which cardiovascular endurance test might provide the most accurate results
The cardiovascular endurance test that might provide the most accurate result is the Balke-Ware treadmill test.
What is Balke-Ware treadmill test?Balke-Ware treadmill test is a test that is used to determine the peak volume of O2 in cardiac patients, though it can also be used to estimate cardiovascular fitness in athletes.
This cardiovascular endurance test involves walking on a treadmill to exhaustion, at a constant walking speed while gradient/slope is increased every one or two minutes.
Therefore, the cardiovascular endurance test that might provide the most accurate result is the Balke-Ware treadmill test.
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Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority assessment
Answer:
Blood pressure
Explanation:
Methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. Methylergonovine causes continuous uterine contractions and may elevate the blood pressure. A priority assessment before the administration of the medication is to check the blood pressure. The obstetrician needs to be notified if hypertension is present. blood pressure is related specifically to the administration of this medication.
How many compressions per cycle should be provided to an adult, child or infant when doing cpr?.
Answer:
15 compressions to 2 breaths.
Explanation:
Two minutes usually allow for five cycles of 30 chest compressions and two breaths. A two-minute CPR cycle is usually tiring.
A busy student, with very few financial resources, has body aches, a fever, cough and nasal congestions and difficulty breathing through their nose. The direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to
According to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.
What is a common cold?It is a mild condition of an infectious nature and viral origin that is also known as a catarrh and that affects the upper respiratory structure.
Its symptoms include sore throat, sneezing, nasal congestions, headache, cough, malaise, and low-grade fever.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.
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You are mentoring a student in the intensive care unit (ICU) while caring for a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which action by the student requires you to intervene most rapidly
The action by the student that requires you to intervene most rapidly is entering the room without putting on a mask & gown.
What is intensive care unit (ICU) ?The Intensive Care Unit (ICU) is a unit in the hospital that specialises in the care of patients that are in critical conditions such as
patients that are from surgery who needs close monitoring.Patients on life support andterminal illness patients.Meningococcal meningitis is a type of infection that affects the meningitis leading to life threatening situations.
This infection is communicable therefore that student should be on personal protection wares to avoid being infected.
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A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
Answer:
1
Explanation:
A type 1 ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
A type I ambulance features a conventional, truck cab chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
What is a type I ambulance?A Type I ambulance includes a traditional truck cab chassis and a modular ambulance body that may be moved to a more modern chassis as necessary.
A Type I ambulance features a modular ambulance body that can be moved to a different chassis as needed and is built like a regular truck cab chassis. An integrated cab-body, standard van ambulance is referred to as a Type II ambulance.
The fundamental distinction between these two kinds is that Type I ambulances have cab arrangements resembling pickup trucks and are placed onto truck chassis. Ambulances of Type III are set up on cutaway van chassis.
Therefore, type I ambulance features a conventional, truck cab chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
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Carlos would like to follow recommendations that would reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Based on this information, Carlos should ______.
Answer:
become more physically active
Explanation:
Carlos would like to follow recommendations that would reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Based on this information, Carlos should become more physically active
Men have a higher incidence of __________ chronic conditions, whereas women have a higher incidence of __________ chronic conditions.
Answer:
Fatal; nonfatal
Explanation:
Men have a higher incidence of Fatal chronic conditions, whereas women have a higher incidence of nonfatal chronic conditions.
muscles when moving produce body____
Answer:
heat
Explanation:
id.k if this is right
hope this helps
have a good day
pregnancy kits test for the presence of what hormone?
Is there a Right and Left of the Superior Sagittarius Sinus or does the right transverse sinus just drain into the Superior Sagittal Sinus?
Answer: The superior sagittal sinus drains into the transverse sinus. The transverse sinuses also receive venous drainage from small veins from both the middle ear and the mastoid cells. The transverse sinus becomes the sigmoid sinus before draining into the internal jugular vein.
Which type of vegetable is rich in sugars, starches, vitamins, and minerals and exist both above and below ground
Answer:
The answer would be Roots.
Explanation:
This would include veggies like onions, beets, carrots, potatoes, etc...
Hope this helps!
Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by:
Answer:
Nocardia.
Explanation:
Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by : Nocardia.
Electronic claims are submitted using what 4 types of transmission media
Answer:
1. dial-up
2. internet
3. magnetic tape
4. electronic media
Explanation:
hope this helps:)
Dial up, internet, magnetic tape, electronic media are the four types of transmission media.
What is Transmission media?It is a communication medium that carries information through a channel from the sender to the receiver, which is transmitted via electromagnetic signals.
The information can be transmitted in the form of bits through Local Area Network, which is a physical path of communication.
In another type of phase transmission called Open System Interconnection phase, the transmission support and considered as a Layer 1 component.
The characteristics and quality of electrical signals of transmission can be are determined by the characteristics of medium and signal and it is passed through the copper wire, fiber optics, water, and vacuum.
The transmission media can be either wired media and wireless media, these have different properties such as bandwidth, delay, installation and maintenance.
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A client has complained to you about connections being dropped on a regular basis in his office. To fix the issue, you plan on checking the RSSI (received signal strength indicator) level to ensure that the minimum signal strength for basic connectivity is maintained. Which RSSI level will you check to get an indication that the minimum signal strength for basic connectivity is maintained
A radio signal's intensity is gauged by RSSI. Poor signal strength is defined as any signal with a level below -80 dBm. Hence, option B, or -80dBm, is the proper response to this issue.
For a user of a receiving equipment, RSSI is frequently unnoticeable.
A more popular moniker for the Signal value is RSSI (Received Signal Strength Indicator), which refers to the strength with which the device is picking up a particular device or signal. On client laptops, RSSI is most frequently used in bridge links, where it is referred to as Signal.
Nonetheless, IEEE 802.11 devices frequently make the measurement visible to consumers, since signal strength can fluctuate substantially and impact wireless networking capabilities.
A poor signal strength for radio signal gauged by RSSI is -80 dBm therefore, option B is correct.
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Your question is incomplete, the probable question is:
A client has complained to you about connections being dropped on a regular basis in his office. To fix the issue, you plan on checking the RSSI (received signal strength indicator) level to ensure that the minimum signal strength for basic connectivity is maintained. Which RSSI level will you check to get an indication that the minimum signal strength for basic connectivity is maintained?
a. -30 dBm
b. -80 dBm
c. -70 dBm
d. -50 dBm
which action is likely to reduce the pancreatic and gastric secretions of a client with pancreatitis
Answer:
Secretion of pancreatic fluid can be divided into three phases which correspond to the different stages of food ingestion. Each phase tends to induce a slightly different composition of pancreatic secretion with slightly different regulatory mechanisms. Cephalic Phase
This phase is initiated by the sensory experience of seeing and eating food and primarily involves vagus nerve stimulation of acinar cells to produce digestive enzymes. Because little aqueous sodium bicarbonate solution by ductal cells these enzymes lie inactive within the pancreatic acini and ducts.
Gastric Phase
This phase is initiated by the presence of food within the stomach and is once again primarily involves vagus nerve stimulation of acinar cells to produce digestive enzymes. By the end of the cephalic and gastric phases, the pancreatic ducts are filled with inactive digestive zymogens ready for washing out into the intestinal lumen by aquous sodium bicarbonate solution.
Intestinal Phase
This phase is initiated by emptying of stomach contents into the small Intestine and involves release of both secretin and cholecystokinin which stimulate pancreatic ductal cells to synthesize aqueous sodium bicarbonate solution. The generation of aqueous sodium bicarbonate solution washes out all of the inactive pancreatic enzymes waiting within the pancreatic ducts into the duodenum where they activated as discussed previously.
Explanation:
The exocrine pancreas secretes an aqueous mixture into the duodenum composed of digestive enzymes, which aid in further degradation of ingested food, and bicarbonate which helps neutralize stomach acid. Neutralization of gastric acid is a critical function of the pancreas as the small intestine mucosa is specialized for nutrient absorption and thus cannot possess a thick protective mucous layer similar to that of the stomach. Furthermore, pancreatic digestive enzymes are optimally active at basic pHs and thus pancreatic bicarbonate secretion is a key requirement for proper digestion.
Manual healing techniques are based on the idea that misalignment or dysfunction in one part of the body can cause pain or dysfunction in another part. true false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
It is true that Manual healing techniques are based on the idea that misalignment or dysfunction in one part of the body can cause pain or dysfunction in another part.
why didnt the toilet paper cross the road
Answer:
because it got stuck in a crack :]
A 73-year-old man presents with confusion; cool, pale, clammy skin; absent radial pulses; and a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg. The patient's wife tells you that he has had abdominal pain for a week and began vomiting a coffee-ground substance yesterday. His past medical history includes hypertension and gastric ulcer disease. Your MOST immediate concern should be that:
Answer:
He is in shock and requires prompt transport
Explanation:
I am taking pre-med classes :)
Ordered: 130mg. Available 1gr/tablet. How many tablets should be given?
1.5 g this ensures the patient gets the right amount of perscription.
Answer:
2
Explanation:
I will assume that 'gr' stands for 'grain' and mot for 'gram' (sometimes used)
1 grain = 65 mg
130 mg/ 65 mg/tab = 2 tablets
What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation?.
Answer:
Chylomicrons
Explanation:
Chylomicrons is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation.
A 3-year-old child has hepatitis A. What symptoms would the healthcare professional assess for
The transaction and code set rule established a code set used to encode all of the following except
Answer:
Transaction rebates back to submitters
Explanation:
your welcome
Which disorder is most likely to cause substernal chest pain at rest that occurs at the same time each day
Answer:
Variant angina also called Prinzmetal's, or Vasospastic. It is a syndrome typically consisting of angina (cardiac chest pain) in contrast to stable angina which is mainly triggered by exertion or intense exercise, commonly happens in people at rest or even asleep and is caused by vasospasm, a narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by contraction of the heart's smooth muscle tissue in the vessel walls. In comparison, stable angina is due to the permanent occlusion of these vessels by atherosclerosis (i.e. buildup of fatty plaque and hardening of the arteries).
Explanation:
I had to learn about this because someone in my family had it.
What's the name of the first woman who started nursing?
Patient is a 53-year-old female who yesterday underwent Mohs surgery with Dr. Smith to remove a basal cell carcinoma of her scalp. Due to the size of the defect Dr. Smith requested a Plastic Surgeon to reconstruct the site. Dr. Jones discussed with the patient his planned closure, which was a Ying-Yang type flap. The patient agreed and we proceeded. The area was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion being careful to keep betadine solution out of the open wound. Wound preparation was done by excising an additional 1 mm margin to freshen the wound and excising the wound deeper. Starting on the right, Dr. Jones incised his planned flap, elevating the flap with full-thickness and subcutaneous fat, staying superior to the galea. Then Dr. Jones incised his planned flap on the left elevating the flap with full-thickness and subcutaneous fat. Both flaps were rotated together and the wound was temporarily closed using the skin stapler. Once it was determined there was minimal tension on the wound, the galea was approximated using 4.0 Monocryl. The wound was then closed in layers using 5-0 Monocryl and a 35R skin stapler. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved through-out the procedure with the Bovie cautery. Final measurements of the wound were 36.25 cm 2. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
The CPT codes such as 14301, 15004-51 are reported in this case of 53 years old female patient.
What do you mean by Carcinoma?Carcinoma may be defined as cancer that initiates in the skin or in tissues that line or cover internal organs.
CPT stands for the current procedural terminology that delivers doctors and healthcare professionals a constant language for coding medical services and techniques to facilitate reporting which increases precision and efficiency.
Therefore, the CPT codes such as 14301, 15004-51 are reported in this case of 53 years old female patient.
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A client develops chronic pancreatitis. What would be the appropriate home diet for a client with chronic pancreatitis
What is the priority symptom to assess for in the client who is taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day
Risperidone is taken to treat conditions like schizophrenia, and irritability associated with autistic disorder. Orthostatic hypertension can be the priority symptom to assess for this client taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day.
What is Orthostatic hypertension?Orthostatic hypertension is a medical condition which includes sudden increase in blood pressure when the person stands up.
It can be diagnosed by a rise in systolic BP of 20 mmHg or more when standing.
In case of client who is taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day, nurse should monitor client blood pressure both while sitting and standing.
Thus, it can be concluded that the priority symptom to assess for in the client who is taking risperidone 1 mg, orally twice a day is orthostatic hypertension.
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